Yes. This can be proved by contradiction
For example, Let g: A ®B and ¦: B®C
A={x1, x2}, B={y}, C={z}, and g (x1) = g (x2) = y, and ¦ (y)= z.
Thus, ¦o g (x1) = ¦o g (x2) =z. Hence ¦o g cannot be one-to-one if g is not one-to-one.
Example:
Let ¦(x) = x, and g (x) = x2, we can see that ¦(x) is a one-to-one function and g (x) is not a one-to-one function. And ¦o g (x) = x2, which is also not one-to-one. Hence ¦o g cannot be one-to-one if g is not one-to-one.
For example, Let g: A ®B and ¦: B®C
A={x1, x2}, B={y}, C={z}, and g (x1) = g (x2) = y, and ¦ (y)= z.
Thus, ¦o g (x1) = ¦o g (x2) =z. Hence ¦o g cannot be one-to-one if g is not one-to-one.
Example:
Let ¦(x) = x, and g (x) = x2, we can see that ¦(x) is a one-to-one function and g (x) is not a one-to-one function. And ¦o g (x) = x2, which is also not one-to-one. Hence ¦o g cannot be one-to-one if g is not one-to-one.